If someone proves that the countries that already ban it, ban it for non-religious reasons, does this instantly resolve YES?

I am pretty sure that the "religious" reason for the bans is that alcohol can make people drunk, which seems like a non-religious reason. Just because religious authorities asked for the ban does not mean they did not have a non-religious reason for asking; they almost certainly did.

@DavidBolin no, as the rules state the ban needs to be enacted after market creation. And "alcohol makes you drunk and being drunk is against our religion" is still religious reasons.

@CodeandSolder if "being drunk is against our religion," there is almost certainly a non-religious reason why they put a rule in their religion against it, namely because they do not like the way drunk people behave.

@DavidBolin clarified it in the description